Cambridge AS Level English General Paper 8021/22 is the May/June 2026 Paper 2 (Comprehension), variant 2. It lasts 1 hour 45 minutes, is worth 50 marks and you answer every question, writing on the question paper. Section A is a 25-mark problem-solving task about the final stage of a TV travel race, and Section B is a 25-mark set of questions on an article about social housing in Vienna. The biggest single question is 1(d), a 10-mark levelled answer in continuous prose. This guide goes through every question and shows what the official mark scheme credited and rejected. The paper, the insert and the mark scheme are free on the Tutopiya Learning Portal.

For an overview of both 8021 papers from this series, see AS English General Paper 8021 May/June 2026 past papers: what came up and how it was marked.

8021/22 at a glance

Rubric: answer all questions. The insert holds all the material. Dictionaries are not allowed.

Question	Section	Task	Marks
1(a)	A	Why Miriam may have an edge at the final destination	2
1(b)	A	Why Carmen may have an edge on the land route through Dora	2
1(c)(i)	A	Why Lars suits the Beko bus station job	2
1(c)(ii)	A	Why Miriam suits the New Boisin restaurant job	2
1(d)	A	Why Carmen would most likely take the ferry route (continuous prose)	10
1(e)	A	The problem with taking the bus to the final destination	1
1(f)	A	Three disadvantages of travelling through Beko and New Boisin	6
2(a)	B	Why young professionals dream of a home like Schranz’s	1
2(b)	B	Four reasons his friends elsewhere are jealous	4
2(c)	B	How Vienna’s inner-city housing differs from other cities’	2
2(d)	B	Three exact words or phrases from lines 19–30	3
2(e)	B	The philosophy behind “communal buildings” (about 20 words)	2
2(f)	B	Why Schranz couldn’t apply for UK social housing (about 10 words)	1
2(g)	B	How the deputy mayor keeps a mix of residents (about 20 words)	2
2(h)	B	Why a long-term resident feels positive, then negative	4
2(i)	B	One problem with the Vienna model	1
2(j)	B	Five words or phrases in your own words	5
		Total	50

Question-by-question walkthrough

Section A: the travel race (25 marks)

Three finalists start in Gaston, in the country of Pana, at 09:00 and must reach the town square in Tasket, in Dora. The insert gives a map, contestant profiles (Lars, a sports coach who runs marathons and climbs; Miriam, a prize-winning maths graduate whose fiancé is from Tasket; Carmen, a retired teacher who speaks four languages, including Dora’s, and volunteers with children’s charities and in wildlife conservation), three job offers, a travel guide with timetables and ten pieces of additional information. Two routes are possible: bus to the Port of Pana and a 16-hour ferry to Rie Bay, then a bus to Tasket; or bus to Beko, an intercity bus to New Boisin and the New Boisin Express train to Tasket.

Every Section A answer depends on linking two details from different places in the insert, which is why most 2-mark questions give 1 mark for the detail and 1 for the link.

• 1(a) Miriam at the final destination (2 marks): her fiancé is from Tasket (1), so she may already know the town or local area (1). Knowing the easiest route or safe routes that avoid rockfalls was accepted for the second mark. A different answer also earned both marks: her maths award suggests she could manage the remaining budget better. Rejected: her fiancé or his family helping her (phones are banned), the town square being reachable only on foot, the jobs, sleep, university or speaking the language.
• 1(b) Carmen on the land route (2 marks): she speaks the language used in Dora (1); she can communicate with locals, ask for directions or understand signs (1); most people in Tasket speak only that language (1). Any two. The second point had to show her using the language in some way: “so there’s no language barrier” was treated as repetition. Saying she could navigate easily because she speaks Dora’s language earned both marks at once.
• 1(c)(i) Lars and the bus station job (2 marks): his marathons or climbing (1) show he is ready for a cleaning role the insert warns is physically demanding (1). Being a sports coach, playing football or being “physically active” on its own was too vague.
• 1(c)(ii) Miriam and the restaurant job (2 marks): she has already shown she can manage on very little sleep, after travelling non-stop in the last stage (1), so a job that ends at 02:00 won’t trouble her (1). The first mark needed the reference to what she did previously. “She can manage on little sleep” without that evidence was rejected, because the others might too.
• 1(d) Why Carmen would take the ferry route (10 marks, levels): the instruction was strict: no mention of Miriam, Lars or the other route, and continuous prose. The scheme’s creditable points:
  • TV access on the ferry, so she can catch up on shows she has been missing, possibly her only chance with phones banned.
  • The onboard restaurant’s local and international food, which suits her love of trying new flavours.
  • The luxurious seating as the home comforts she has been missing. Home comforts could only be linked to the seating or the TV.
  • Views of the bird sanctuary as she nears Rie Bay, which a wildlife volunteer would enjoy.
  • Her teaching and charity work, which make the Rie Bay reading support job a natural fit.
  • Timings: the 10:00 bus to the port gets her moving an hour after the start and onto the 15:00 ferry; the ferry arrives at 07:00, so she can do the four hours of reading support, earn $80 and still catch the 15:00 bus to Tasket. That chain was worth a point plus two developments.
  • It is the quicker route, and the non-stop bus gets her to Tasket quickly. The idea of saving time was credited only once.
  • Rejected: seating and legroom on their own, needing comfort, homesickness, speaking the local language (true of both routes), the 16-hour crossing, a direct bus in general (the train is direct too), not needing accommodation, being able to sleep, an ocean view, and any disadvantages such as delays or ticket prices.
• 1(e) The problem with the bus to the final destination (1 mark): drivers around Tasket often report traffic delays, or rockfalls and landslides that could hold contestants up. Only the first response is credited.
• 1(f) Three disadvantages of the Beko route (6 marks): each disadvantage could earn up to 2 marks when developed. The scheme’s examples:
  • The start is 09:00 but the bus to Beko leaves at 15:00, so six hours of race time are lost.
  • Beko hotels are the most expensive in Pana, and the contestants have all overspent, adding budget pressure.
  • There is only one daily bus from Gaston to Beko, so missing it costs a full day.
  • The bus reaches Beko at 22:00 and the next bus to New Boisin leaves at 08:00, ten hours later, so they need a hotel.
  • The New Boisin Express is popular, and tickets may be hard to buy at short notice, leaving them stranded in New Boisin.
  • Calling it the slower route, or noting it takes over 33 hours, earned 1. Points about delays and waiting were capped at 1 overall. Rejected: phones and credit cards, the number of departures, the 12-hour bus journey, language in Tasket, border crossings, general references to missing buses or being tired, the Beko job and rockfalls near Tasket.

How the 1(d) levels work

• Level 4 (9–10): interprets the evidence and keeps a strong focus throughout, with a comprehensive selection of relevant information, written clearly, accurately and fluently.
• Level 3 (6–8): a moderate range covering some of the main issues, but with a restricted range or some loss of focus.
• Level 2 (3–5): mainly undeveloped material and a modest range of points, some possibly irrelevant or wrong.
• Level 1 (1–2): a few simple, unexplained points or a very narrow range.

Examiners were told not to over-reward several points taken from the same spot in the insert, such as the ferry information box, the reading support job or the note about Carmen missing her home comforts. Range across the insert is what moves an answer up.

Section B: Vienna’s social housing (25 marks)

The article describes Max Schranz, a 26-year-old postgraduate student who rents a cheap, well-located city-owned flat in Vienna, and explains how the city became Europe’s largest home-owning city, how it mixes residents on different incomes, and what residents like and dislike about the system.

• 2(a) Why young professionals dream of a home like his (1 mark): it is a bright fifth-floor flat with high ceilings overlooking a capital city, or it is ten minutes from the central station and within walking distance of cinemas, theatres and bars. The rent being a fraction of similar flats elsewhere was also accepted. First response only.
• 2(b) Four reasons his friends are jealous (4 marks): he needed no lottery win or family money; he pays $650 a month for a 54 m² two-bedroom flat, a fraction of typical rents; he paid no deposit; his contract is unlimited and can be passed to his children or a sibling; and it is a stress-free existence. The flat’s description and location from 2(a) were also accepted. The same point is not credited twice.
• 2(c) How Vienna differs from other cities (2 marks): any two of: Vienna’s inner-city housing is affordable because the city owns it; other cities face spiralling rents, partly driven by flats used as short-term holiday lets or kept empty by speculators; Vienna owns about 220 000 socially rented flats, making it Europe’s largest home-owning city; and its estates lack the stigma of poverty and crime linked to similar housing elsewhere. Points about disability, dependants or architecture were rejected because the focus is inner-city housing.
• 2(d) Exact words from lines 19–30 (3 marks): (i) overflowing = awash; (ii) to excite = capture the imagination (of); (iii) shame = stigma. First response only, with no extra words before or after. Minor spelling slips are tolerated if the word is still clear.
• 2(e) The philosophy behind “communal buildings” (2 marks, about 20 words): any two of: social sustainability is a key concept; social housing is for everyone, not just the poor; people of different backgrounds and incomes live in the same estates; and the city avoids ghettoes and costly social conflict. The first point needed a sense of purpose: “maintain social sustainability” was too vague.
• 2(f) Why Schranz couldn’t apply in the UK (1 mark, about 10 words): he is a student with no disability or dependants. It must be a full sentence, and the focus is Schranz, not the UK.
• 2(g) How the deputy mayor keeps a mix (2 marks, about 20 words): there is a maximum income for applicants (1), and incomes are not checked again after moving in because they can fall again (1). “Limit” or “cut-off point” was rejected as too vague, since it could mean a minimum.
• 2(h)(i) Why the long-term resident feels positive (2 marks): he has lived in his estate for seven decades (1), so he strongly praises the idea that created his block (1); and he thinks the model is more necessary than ever because rents are hard to control (1). Saying he lived in Vienna or the city, rather than his estate, was too vague.
• 2(h)(ii) Why he feels negative (2 marks): residents don’t bother waiting for central management to fix problems (1); one company is responsible for all the repairs (1), which causes long delays or bottlenecks (1). The broken stair light or door lock were accepted as examples of repairs. “It takes time” was too vague; it needed the idea of a long time.
• 2(i) One problem with the model (1 mark): only 60 per cent of residents are in social or co-op housing, while 80 per cent rent; a large part of the population is excluded; you can apply only after living in Vienna for two years; or a single large company manages all the housing. The percentage points needed the figures. First response only.
• 2(j) Meanings in your own words (5 marks):

Word or phrase	Accepted	Rejected
(the) peak	top, height, prime, pinnacle, highest level	–
fuelled (by)	driven, powered, caused, triggered, sparked, encouraged (by)	supported, due to, because of, enhanced
came into being	created, built, constructed, brought into existence	became, exists
uprooted	displaced, removed, forced to move, left homeless	affected
far from fancy	basic, simple, ordinary, not luxurious, not extravagant	away from luxury, not modern, poor conditions, ugly, traditional, adequate

Only the first answer is marked, and examiners highlight any words lifted from the text. For “peak” and “fuelled”, match the grammatical form: a noun for peak, a past participle for fuelled.

Where the marks are on 8021/22

Skill	Questions	Marks
Levelled extended answer from scattered evidence	1(d)	10
Linking two details to explain a point	1(a), 1(b), 1(c)(i), 1(c)(ii), 1(f)	14
Single-point identification	1(e), 2(a), 2(i)	3
Retrieving and explaining from the article	2(b), 2(c), 2(h)	10
Word-limited answers in continuous prose	2(e), 2(f), 2(g)	5
Vocabulary: exact words and own-word meanings	2(d), 2(j)	8
	Total	50

• Section A rewards logic more than reading speed. Twenty-four of its 25 marks are for explaining why, usually by joining a contestant detail to a timetable, job or warning.
• Section B rewards precision. Thirteen marks sit in vocabulary and word-limited answers, where a single extra word, a wrong word form or a note-form answer costs the mark.
• “Do not refer to” instructions are part of the mark. Questions 1(c), 1(d) and 1(f) all limit what you may mention, and points that don’t fit the focus are rejected.

How to self-mark 8021/22 with the mark scheme

1. Mark only your first answer wherever the scheme says “credit first response only”: 1(e), 2(a), 2(d), 2(i) and every part of 2(j). Cross out anything after it.
2. Check every 2-mark Section A answer has both halves: the detail from the insert and the reason it matters. A detail alone usually scores 1.
3. Check the reject lists. Many rejected answers, such as the fiancé helping Miriam or Carmen’s language skills in 1(d), sound sensible but break a rule in the insert or the question.
4. Level 1(d) by range. List the different parts of the insert you drew on. Several points from the same box count as less than points from across the material.
5. Count words on 2(e), 2(f) and 2(g). Draw a line after 20 (or 10) words. Credit only points that finish within 23 (or 11), and limit any answer not in full sentences.
6. Check word forms in 2(j) and that 2(d) answers are the exact words from lines 19–30, with nothing added.
7. Note why each mark was lost: missed detail, missing link, vague wording or a broken rule. Each needs a different fix.

Sit 8021/22 as a timed mock

The paper allows 105 minutes for 50 marks, about two minutes per mark.

Block	Marks	Time
Read the Section A material and highlight timings, warnings and profiles	–	10 minutes
Questions 1(a) to 1(c)	8	10 minutes
Plan and write 1(d)	10	20 minutes
Questions 1(e) and 1(f)	7	10 minutes
Read the Section B article	–	10 minutes
Questions 2(a) to 2(d)	10	15 minutes
Questions 2(e) to 2(i), counting words	10	15 minutes
Question 2(j)	5	7 minutes
Check rules, word counts and first responses	–	8 minutes

Other May/June 2026 8021 papers

• 8021 Paper 12 (Essay)

Practise and download

• Download 8021/22, the insert and the mark scheme on the Learning Portal →
• All 8021 May/June 2026 papers: overview and marking patterns
• Try a free AS Level English General Paper quiz

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Frequently asked questions

How many marks is 8021 Paper 22 May/June 2026 and how long is it? +

It is out of 50 marks and lasts 1 hour 45 minutes. You answer every question on the question paper: Section A (the travel race) and Section B (the Vienna housing article) are worth 25 marks each.

What was the 10-mark question on 8021/22 in 2026? +

Question 1(d) asked why Carmen would most likely take the ferry route to Tasket, in continuous prose, without mentioning the other contestants or routes. It was marked in four levels, from 1–2 up to 9–10.

What were the answers to 8021/22 Question 2(d)? +

Awash (overflowing), capture the imagination (to excite) and stigma (shame), all taken from lines 19 to 30. Only your first answer counts, and you must copy the exact word or phrase without extra words.

How are the word limits enforced on 8021/22? +

For 2(e) and 2(g), about 20 words, examiners draw a line after 20 words and only finish a point that ends within 23. For 2(f), about 10 words, the line goes after 10 and a point must end within 11. Answers not in full sentences are limited too.

What does 'credit first response only' mean on 8021/22? +

If you give more than one answer, only the first is marked. A wrong first answer cannot be rescued by a right second one, so commit to one answer on questions such as 1(e), 2(a), 2(d), 2(i) and 2(j).

Where can I download 8021/22 May/June 2026, the insert and the mark scheme? +

All three are free to download and print on the Tutopiya Learning Portal, on the Cambridge AS Level English General Paper 8021 past papers page.

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